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- Those individuals from whom people seek information and advice mostly for farming purpose are called
Answer: (C) Opinion leaders
- The Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) was popularly known as
Answer: (C) Package programme
- The process by which an individual through one’s own efforts and abilities changes the behaviour is called
Answer: (A) Learning
- The process of communication to be successful should be
Answer: (B) Audience oriented
- The process by which messages are transferred from a source to receiver is called
Answer: (A) Communication
- The following is not an element in the diffusion of innovation
Answer: (D) Rate of adoption
- Adoption of an innovation will be more rapid when
Answer: (D) Complexity decreases
- The degree to which an innovation is perceived as relatively difficult to understand and use is called its
Answer: (B) Complexity
- The number of steps in an extension educational process is
Answer: (C) Five
- Assertion [A] : Extension education is a two way channel of communication between researchers and farmers
Reason [R]: Researchers are not equipped for the job of persuading farmers to adopt scientific methods and it is difficult for farmers
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
- A dispersive force that affect allelic frequency in a population is due to
Answer: (C) Small population size
- The systematic force which can create a new allele
Answer: (B) Mutation
- The degree of resemblance between offspring and parent is measured by
Answer: (A) Regression coefficient
- The form of DNA which exists as a left handed Helix is
Answer: (C) Z-Form of DNA
- Mammalian chromosomes consist of deoxyribo nucleic acid together with basic proteins of low molecular weight is called as
Answer: (A) Histones
- Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
- 1. Submetacentric – Submedian centromere
- 2. Acrocentric – Terminal centromere
- 3. Metacentric – Median centromere
- 4. Telocentric – Nearly terminal centromere
Answer: (C) 2 and 4
- A type of allelic interaction in which both the alleles of the gene are equally expressed so that the phenotype of the heterozygote exhibits a mixture of phenotypes of both of the homozygotes
Answer: (C) Co-dominance
- When cloned genes are introduced into a single cell that gives rise to whole organism which can be propagated by normal breeding methods are called
Answer: (C) Transgenic
- In a population, when the proportion of animals selected increases, the selection intensity
Answer: (B) Decreases
- The method of selection employed for selecting the animals for show purpose is
Answer: (B) Independent culling level
- Assertion [A] : Progeny testing is an ideal method for evaluating breeding values of sires for sex limited traits
Reason [R]: Fewer males than the females are required for breeding; the scope for genetic improvement is greatest through selection of males.
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
- (i) Important breeds of livestock in India are to be conserved for the future benefit
(ii) Conservation is for breed with unique characteristics and for future requirement of animal produce.
Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) are true (ii) is the correct reason for (i)
- About 50,000 cryopreserved semen doses representing important and endangered breeds of different livestock and poultry are being maintained in the “Animal Gene Bank” at
Answer: (C) NBAGR, Karnal
- In animals, the first successful gene transfer was carried out in
Answer: (B) Mice
- The Central Cattle Breeding Farms (CCBF) were established for different breeds during _ five year plan
Answer: (D) 3rd
- Interbull, a subcommittee of the international committee for Animal recoding (ICAR) compared the bulls both within and across countries based on their
Answer: (C) EBV
- Match correctly the terminologies with suitable explanations
(a) Line breeding 1. Crossing two different breeds
(b) Pedigree 2. Selection based on progeny performance
(c) Progeny testing 3. Performance Records of Ancestors
(d) Cross breeding 4. Rate of Inbreeding is less
Answer: (A) (a) 4, (b) 3, (c) 2, (d) 1
- In open Nucleus breeding schemes, there will be
Answer: (C) Increased annual rate of genetic gain
- Choose the right matches among the following Indian sheep breeds with their major utility
- 1. Hissardale – Apparel wool
- 2. Pattanwadi – Carpet wool
- 3. Hassan – Carpet wool
- 4. Jalauni – Fine wool
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 are correct
- Which is/are the right statement(s) regarding SWAMP buffaloes
(i) Have 50 chromosomes
(ii) Reared for draft purpose
(iii) Have 48 chromosomes
(iv) Reared for milk
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
- Odd chain fatty acids on β -oxidation yield finally
Answer: (A) One molecule of propionyl CoA and one molecule of Acetyl
CoA
- Choose the correct statement for evaluation of renal-function
- 1. Estimation of serum creatinine is more reliable indicator
- 2. Estimation of serum creatine is more reliable indicator
- 3. Estimation of serum Uric acid is more reliable indicator
- 4. Estimation of blood urea nitrogen is more reliable indicator
Answer: (A) Statement 1 is correct
- Which one of the following clearance tests is not used to assess the glomerular filtration rate?
Answer: (D) Para-Amino Hippuric acid test
- Ketogenic amino acids are
Answer: (D) Leucine, Lysine
- Following coagulation factors are synthesized in liver except
Answer: (B) Calcium
- Which thermoregulatory mechanism will take place during hot environmental conditions?
Answer: (C) Sweating
- In which part of the nephron, the glucose reabsorption is maximum?
Answer: (B) Proximal convoluted tubule
- Oesophageal groove in ruminants ends at
Answer: (B) Reticulo omasal orifice
- Intrinsic factors influencing the cardiac performance are all, except
Answer: (D) Sympathetic innervation
- The coenzyme for aminotransferases
Answer: (A) Pyridoxal phosphate
- Different molecular forms of the same enzyme that catalyzes the same reaction are called as
Answer: (B) Isoenzymes
- Which of the following enzyme has diagnostic value in assessing hepatocellular necrosis in dogs?
Answer: (A) ALT
- Which class of the enzyme uses ATP for joining of molecules?
Answer: (B) Ligases
- The complex muscle present at dorsolateral aspect of leg region originates from
Answer: (D) Extensor fossa of femur
- In horse Caecum is situated on __ of abdominal cavity
Answer: (B) Right side
- In the fiscal year 2022-23, Tamil Nadu ranked _ position in India’s total milk production, with a production of _ LMT
Answer: (B) 11th, 103.17 LMT
- As per 20th livestocks census, the pig population of Tamil Nadu was
Answer: (B) 0.67 Lakh
- Chevaadu breed of sheep is native to __ district of Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A) Tirunelveli
- Operation flood 1, launched by NDDB in 1970’s, had the primary objective
Answer: (D) To create a national milk grid and link rural producers with urban market
- Which project evaluation indicator is used to find the discount rate that makes the Net Present Value (NPV) of a project equal to zero?
Answer: (A) IRR
- The per capita availability of meat in India during 2023 – 24 was __ kg/annum.
Answer: (D) 7.39
- Which one of the following is not the objective of Tamilnadu livestock development agency?
Answer: (C) To effectively control economically important diseases
- The third phase of operation flood programme was implemented by NDDB during
Answer: (C) 1985 – 90
- All breedable age cattle and buffalo in Tamil Nadu brought under defined breeding programme to increase production is through
Answer: (D) TNLDA
- International organisation involved in health and economic interest of consumer
Answer: (A) CAC
- Choose the right answer. The costs that are variable with the level of production are referred as
Answer: (C) Variable cost
- __ is the performance of business activities that directs the flow of goods from producer to consumers.
Answer: (D) Marketing
- In the context of livestock products, which of the following types of risk refers to potential harm or loss due to external factors such as injuries, accidents or natural disasters?
Answer: (A) Physical Risks
- In developing economies, how is the demand for livestock products typically characterised in response to rising income levels?
Answer: (A) Elastic
- In economic terms, which type of cost represents the opportunity cost of using resources owned by the firm, such as the owner’s time or the use of the firm’s own capital, that is not directly paid for?
Answer: (A) Implicit cost
- In the economics of dairy enterprise, the cost of veterinary expenses is classified as
Answer: (B) Variable cost
- The organisation enforcing meat food products order, 1973 to exercise control over the production of meat products in India is
Answer: (A) DMI
- In the economics of broiler enterprise, the investment on poultry equipments is categorised as
Answer: (A) Fixed capital
- The final stage in the project feasibility report is
Answer: (D) Evaluation
- In the economics of poultry farming, the cost of broiler chicks are included under __ capital.
Answer: (A) Working capital
- Bhopal Gas tragedy is due to the leakage of the following gas
Answer: (C) Methyl isocyanate
- The more accurate and cheaper means of determining the oxygen requirements of an effluent before treatment is
Answer: (B) Measuring BOD
- Assertion [A] : Chlorine is readily inactivated by organic matter. Reason [R] : Chlorine combines with amino nitrogen to form less active chloramines.
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation
- Salt content of sea water is
Answer: (D) 3.5%
- Assertion [A] : Raw meat products packed in vacuum may allow clostridium botulinum to grow. Reason [R] : Clostridium botulinum is an obligate anaerobe.
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
- Human infection reported in handling the NDV affected chickens or the virus include transient
Answer: (C) Unilateral or bilateral conjunctivitis
- The fish which is used in biological control of mosquito
Answer: (A) Gambusia affinis
- DIVA technique is used to
Answer: (D) Differentiate between infected and vaccinated animals
- Pearl’s Disease of cruise called as
Answer: (B) Tuberculosis
- Dunkop and Dikkop forms are present in which disease
Answer: (D) African horse sickness
- Anaplasmosis is also known as
Answer: (C) Gall sickness
- Peste Des Petits Ruminants is otherwise known as
Answer: (B) Goat plague
- Which statement is incorrect with anaplasmosis?
Answer: (C) Haemoglobinuria
- The total mortality rate for all diseases in a population is called
Answer: (A) Death rate
- Intensive form of data recording in disease epidemiology is
Answer: (D) Surveillance
- Match List I with List II in association with disease occurrence :
- (a) Prevalence 1. Expected level diseases occurrence
- (b) Incidence 2. Unexpected level of disease occurrence
- (c) Endemic 3. Both old and new cases
- (d) Epidemic 4. Only new cases
Answer: (C) (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 1, (d) 2
- Ability of an infectious agent to cause disease is known as
Answer: (C) Pathogenecity
- Which the following disease is wrongly matched with respect to inclusion bodies
(a) Rabies – 1. Negri bodies
(b) Canine distemper – 2. Intracytoplasmic and intranuclear bodies
(c) Infectious canine hepatitis – 3. Koch blue body
Answer: (C) (3) alone correct
- Which of the following organisms found concentrated in bird droppings?
(1) Cryptococcus neoformans
(2) Histoplasma farciminosum
(3) Histoplasma capsulation
(4) Blastomyces dermatitidis
(5) Sporothrix schenckii
Answer: (A) (1) and (3)
- Which one of the following Aspergillus sp. can tolerate temperature upto 45°C?
Answer: (A) A. fumigatus
- Which one of the following is not a dimorphic fungi?
Answer: (A) Cryptococcus neoformans
- The __ fungus grows as mold at 25°C and yeast at 37°C.
Answer: (A) Sporothrix schenckhii
- Which one of the following is not a reservoir host for malignant catarrhal fever virus?
Answer: (D) Cattle
- Factor B is required for the activation of __ complement pathway.
Answer: (A) Alternative pathway
- Which animals Immunoglobulin does not have light chain?
Answer: (A) Alpaca
- Choose the following true statements about attenuated vaccine
(i) Induce humoral and cell mediated immunity
(ii) Mostly induce humoral immunity
(iii) Requires multiple booster
(iv) Requires only a single booster
Answer: (D) (i) and (iv) only
- In which of the following pair, CAMP test is negative?
Answer: (C) Staphylococcus aureus and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
- Which one of the following is a microaerophilic bacteria?
Answer: (B) Campylobacter jejuni
- Match the following.
(a) Sea gull shaped bacteria – 1. Nocardia asteroides
(b) Pleomorphic bacteria – 2. Dermatophilus congolensis
(c) Filamentous bacteria – 3. Campylobacter sp.
(d) Tram-tract appearance – 4. Trueperella pyogenes
Answer: (C) (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 1, (d) 2
- Method used for staining the genus Mycobacterium is
Answer: (B) Ziehl – Neelsen’s Stain
- If phosphatase test is negative for a milk sample, it is said to be
Answer: (A) Pasteurised milk
- Which one of the following test is used to detect adulteration of cow milk with buffalo milk?
Answer: (D) Hansa test
- The addition of water to milk results in
Answer: (A) The lowering of its lactometer reading
- Assertion [A] : Somatic Cell Count (SCC) is a measure of cells present in milk indicating amount of mastitis infection in udder and less valuable milk.
Reason [R] : Streptococci spp have adhesive properties and produce high cell count leading to production of poor quality of cheese and Ice cream.
Answer: (B) [A] and [R] are true
- Metabiosis is a type of associative action of mixed microbial flora, in which
Answer: (C) The metabolic end products of one organism are utilized as substrate by the other organism
- Under working of butter leads to the ––––––––––––defect.
Answer: (D) Leaky
- Ices contain
Answer: (D) No Dairy products
- Batch/holding pasteurisation is otherwise known as
Answer: (A) LTLT
- The chemical used to decontaminate or reduce the bacterial load on carcasses after slaughter
Answer: (C) Lactic acid
- The skin of Immature animals are called as
Answer: (A) KIPS
- The species of meat shows the typical grayish pink color is
Answer: (D) Veal
- Poultry egg does not contain.
Answer: (A) Vit-C
- After postmortem, the meat flavour intensity increases due to accumulation of
Answer: (C) Inosinic Acid
- Slaughter of dead animal is called as
Answer: (C) Cold slaughter
- The resting place for food animals after unloading in abattoir is called
Answer: (B) Lairage
- The total mineral content in feed is measured by burning the feed sample in a muffle furnace at a temperature of
Answer: (C) 600°C
- Hypocalcemia in cattle is otherwise called as
Answer: (B) Milk fever
- Metabolic disorder caused by ingestion of diets rich in rapidly fermentable carbohydrates and lacking physically effective fibre in dairy cow is
Answer: (C) Sub Acute Ruminal acidosis
- The Non-Protein-Nitrogen source with higher nitrogen content is
Answer: (D) Urea
- The feed processing techniques, not coming under physical method is
Answer: (B) Ammoniation
- The desirable inclusion level of “Azolla” in dairy cattle ration to reduce the feed cost is
Answer: (A) 20 – 30%
- The anti-nutritional factor getting biodegraded in solid state fermentation using white rot fungi
Answer: (D) Tannin
- The agro industrial by product, more prone for mycotoxin contamination is
Answer: (C) Distillers’ Dried Grains with Solubles
- The diet of Tiger in captivity must be provided ––––––––––––% ca on dry matter basis if bones are not consumed
Answer: (B) 2%
- The nutritive value of Babul foods (Acacia arabica) is as following.
Answer: (D) DCP 2%; TDN 40%
- The Characteristic star-gazing posture in a day old chick is due to Deficiency of
Answer: (E) Answer not known (Thiamine is not given in the choice)
- Leg abnormality in poultry is a common feature of
Answer: (B) Zinc deficiency
- The Disease conditions associated with Vitamin-“E” deficiency are
(i) Alkali Disease
(ii) Stiff Lamb Disease
(iii) White muscle Disease
(iv) Falling Disease
Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii) only
- Probiotic exert their effect by
(i) Competitive exclusion of pathogen from gut
(ii) Neutralization of enterotoxin produced by pathogen
(iii) Bactericidal activity in pathogens
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) are alone correct
- Correct match the deficiency disease with its corresponding nutrient Nutrient Deficiency signs
(a) Vitamin D – 1. Fatty Liver syndrome
(b) Vitamin A – 2. Encephalomalacia
(c) Niacin – 3. Black Tongue
(d) Vitamin E – 4. Xerophthalmia
(e) Choline – 5. Rickets
Answer: (A) (a) 5, (b) 4, (c) 3, (d) 2, (e) 1
- Toxicity of aflatoxin is greatest for
Answer: (B) Duckling
- Assertion [A] : Egg type Layers maintained upto 80 weeks of Age and production cycle divided into 3 phases with different feeding Regime.
Reason [R] : The requirement of protein and aminoacid decreases but calcium requirement increases in laying phase III
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct Explanation of [A]
- The colour produced in Egg white by feeding of cotton seed oil
Answer: (A) Pink
- Example for unconventional vegetable protein source is
Answer: (B) Guar meal
- The efficiency of conversion of feed ME into energy content of milk is
Answer: (C) 70%
- Which of the following is/are correctly paired?
(i) Cobra venom – Neurotoxic
(ii) Viper venom – Haemotoxic
(iii) Fluoride toxicity – Burton’s line
(iv) Arsenic toxicity – Mee’s line
Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
- A clinician will choose a general anesthetic agent with the following characters, except
Answer: (A) Slow induction and recovery
- Which one of the following opioids is synthetic in nature
Answer: (D) Pethidine
- One of the following receptors is not an example of ionotropic receptors
Answer: (D) Histamine receptor
- Mecillinam is a semisynthetic penicillin effective against
Answer: (B) Gram negative bacteria
- Which of the following is not the character of neoplasm
(a) Proliferate continuously without control
(b) Bear a considerable resemblance to the healthy cells from which they arise
(c) Have orderly structural arrangement
(d) Serves no useful function and not have the clearly understood cause
Answer: (C) (c) only
- In equine practice, stud fee is payable only on the birth of a ––––––––––––foal
Answer: (B) Live foal
- Which of the following condition is not included in porphyrinopathies?
Answer: (D) Hemosiderosis
- In poison suspected cases, liver is included as
(1) A piece of liver
(2) About 500gm of liver
(3) A lobe of liver
(4) A whole, if small in size
Answer: (C) (2) and (4) are true, and (1) and (3) are false
- Which disease, the impression smear made from lymph node, spleen, liver, abomasum and kidney show presence of koch’s blue bodies?
Answer: (A) Theileriosis
- Commonly used Blood anticoagulants for preservation of samples.
Answer: (D) EDTA
- Hepatozoon canis is found in
Answer: (A) Neutrophils
- Gid in sheep is caused by the bladder worm stage of
Answer: (A) Taenia multiceps
- Assertion [A] : Schistosoma nasale causes snoring disease in bullock
Reason [R] : Schistosoma nasale was discovered by M.Anant Narayan Rao in 1932.
Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
- Which of the following cause clinical signs of steatorrhoea in calves
Answer: (A) Toxocara vitulorum
- Choose the odd one from the group in which all causes radiation injury to the cell, but physical nature vary from others
(a) Ultra violet rays,
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma – rays
(d) Alpha – rays
Answer: (D) Ultra violet rays
- Match the diseases caused by pathogenic clostridia and choose the correct option List I List II
(a) Clostridium colinum 1. Pseudomembranous colitis
(b) Clostridium perfringens 2. Ulcerative enteritis
(c) Clostridium difficile 3. Necrotic enteritis
(d) Clostridium botulinum 4. Limberneck
Answer: (B) (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 1, (d) 4
- The seller’s staining method is used for the diagnosis of
Answer: (C) Rabies
- Which of the following is not true of Swine fever?
Answer: (C) Neutrophilic perivascular cuffing in brain
- Neutrophilic toxic granules ‘‘Dohle’s bodies” are formed by
Answer: (B) Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum
- ‘MAKHNAS’ is a
Answer: (A) Bull Elephant without Tusk
- Which of the following statements are true about Elephants?
(i) In Taxonomy, Elephants comes under order Proboscidea
(ii) Males are with Tushes and females grow tusks
(iii) Elephants are practically devoid of sweat glands
(iv) As the skin is thick, less sensitive to pain
Answer: (C) (i) and (iii) only
- (1) SPF animals are neither disease free nor disease resistant (2) Gnotobiotic animals are free from all Microorganisms.
Answer: (C) (1) and (2) are correct
- The percentage of protein in the total diet fed during Gestation period of MARE.
Answer: (C) 12
- The breeding age of gilts is
Answer: (B) 8 to 9 months
- In pigs, the normal weaning age is
Answer: (B) 56 days
- Swine production system in India is predominantly small-scale enterprise practiced in the form of
Answer: (D) Backyard farming by small farmer and landless labourer
- The carcass percentage of is about
Answer: Question is not specific about any species, to be challenged to get marks for all the choices
- Assertion [A] : Boars should be provided individual STY and should be in the vicinity of gilt and sow pens.
Reason [R] : Visible to these pens provide olfactory stimulus through pheromones in addition to visual and auditory stimuli.
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
- Choose correct pairs of deficiency diseases due to nutrients in Pig Ration.
(a) Mulberry Heart Disease – 1. Vit. A
(b) Anaemia – 2. Iron
(c) Petechial Haemorrhages – 3. Vit. C
(d) Blindness – 4. Vit. E
Answer: (C) (a) 4, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 1
- Which one of the following is the primary function of Colostrum feeding in Calves?
Answer: (A) To fortify Calf’s disease resistance
- Which breed of fowl is having black flesh?
Answer: (B) Kadaknath
- Disbudding is done in ––––––––––– days in calves
Answer: (B) 3 – 10 days
- Assertion [A] : Feeding the heifers in preparation to calving is called Steaming up or Challenge feeding !
Reason [R] : Steaming up increases daily milk yield, lengthens the lactation period and also increases the butter fat percentage
Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
- Consider the following statements about breeding and lambing seasons in sheep.
(i) Main season breeding – September to October
(ii) Main season lambing – March to April
(iii) Off season breeding – January to February
(iv) Off season lambing – August to September
Answer: (E) Answer not known
- Well defined breeds of goat in India are
Answer: (E) Answer not known
- The following breeds are used for draught purpose except
Answer: (A) Hariana
- Which of the following statements are true about conventional dairy housing system
(1) Not more than 80-100 cows should be placed in one building
(2) The floor space requirement for an adult cow should be 50-55 sq.ft.
(3) Roof height should be 8 feet at sides and 15 feet at ridge is preference
(4) Calving box should have an area about 80-100 sq. feet with soft bedding
Answer: (C) (1) and (3) are correct
- Match correctly the Buffalo breeds of India according to their home tract
(a) Murrah – 1. Gujarat
(b) Surti – 2. Punjab
(c) Toda – 3. Maharashtra
(d) Pandharpuri – 4. Tamil Nadu
Answer: (B) (a) 2, (b) 1, (c) 4, (d) 3
- Which of the following are correctly paired?
(1) Sahiwal – Milch Breed
(2) Tharparkar – Draught Breed
(3) Bargur – Draught Breed
(4) Hallikar – Dual purpose
Answer: (B) (1) and (3) are correct
- The available antidote for the synthetic narcotic analgesic in wild animals is
Answer: (B) Diprenorphine
- The best nerve block technique used in Bovines for the examination of eye and removal of foreign Body is
Answer: (B) Auriculopalpebral nerve block
- Opacity of the lens in the eye is known as
Answer: (D) Cataract
- The type of debridement that is highly selective and the dissolve non viable tissue in a wound.
Answer: (B) Enzymatic Debridement
- Identification of Embryo and foetal Heart Rate is 100%. Accurate earliest at ––––––––––– days of pregnancy through B-Mode rt USG.
Answer: (B) 20-25
- The concentration of progesterone correlated with signs of impending parturition is
Answer: (A) < 2 ng/ml
- Assertion [A] : One litter can have multiple father
Reasons
[R1] : Sperm from more than one male can account for disparity in size or color of pubbies
[R2] : Pups of different ages in utero and multiple fathers.
Answer: (C) [A] is true [R1] and [R2] are true
- Which one of the following is the gold standard test for subclinical Ketosis in cattle is
Answer: (B) BHBA
- Appeasement cry or heat cry is a characteristics sign of estrone in
Answer: (A) Queen Cats
- Time of ovulation in Cow is
Answer: (A) 10-15 hours after the end of oestrus
- In most of the species the Oocyte retains the fertilizing potential of ––––––––––– after ovulation.
Answer: (A) 0-12 hrs
- Based on the occurrence of estrus, the queens are classified as
Answer: (C) Seasonally Polyestrus
- The accessory gland in reproductive system which contributes gel like component of BOAR Semen is
Answer: (B) Bulbo Urethral Gland
- ––––––––––– is the condition that arises which an animal already pregnant mates, ovulates and conceives a second fetus or second listed.
Answer: (A) Superfetation
- In cows affected with bilateral partial ovarian hypoplasia –––––––– number of primordial follicle is present
Answer: (B) < 500
- Testes are positioned retro-peritoneally in the following species except
Answer: (A) Rabbit
- Exostosis on the ––––––––––– bone is called ring bone
Answer: (C) Phalanx bone
- Invagination (or) telescoping of a part of intestine distally into an adjacent portion is
Answer: (C) Intussusception
- The surgical procedure that provides a clean of passage of urine temporarily by passing the urethra in small ruminants
Answer: (C) Tube Cystotomy
- Osteoarthritis is defined as
Answer: (D) Non inflammatory, non infectious degeneration
- Which of the following condition is a testicular pathology due to congenital cause
Answer: (A) Testicular Hypoplasia
- In cows, the commonest cause of dystocia is
Answer: (A) Lateral deviation of head
- The normal presentation and position of fetus during parturition in cattle are
Answer: (A) Anterior longitudinal, dorso-sacral
- ––––––––––– mutational operation is used to turn the foetus on its long axis to correct its positional abnormality.
Answer: (C) Rotation
- ––––––––––– hormone aids in transport of Spermatozoa from Ductus deferens to Pelvic urethra
Answer: (B) Oxytocin
- Papple shaped abdominal profile in cattle indicates
Answer: (B) Vagal Indigestion
- Dietary Anion – Cation balance is most important in the management of which of the following disease
Answer: (B) Hypocalcemia
- The term ‘Goose stepping gait’ of pigs in associated with are of the following vitamin deficiency
Answer: (D) Pantothenic acid
- Hyperdynamic stage of endotoxemia and sepsis causes which of the following
(i) Increased oxygen demand
(ii) Increased heart rate
(iii) Vasodilation
(iv) Decreased in Cardiac output
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
- Favourable response to Calcium treatment in Milk fever is
(i) Marched increase in HR
(ii) Bradyarrhythmias
(iii) Not voiding drug, increase in bloating
(iv) Decrease in heart rate and defecation
Answer: (C) (iv)